For Whom Did Christ Die?
by John Owen
The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for, either:
- Premise 1- All the sins of all men.
- Premise 2- All the sins of some men (the elect), or
- Premise 3- Some of the sins of all men.
- a. That if the third premise is true, all men have some sins to answer for, and so none are saved.
- b. That if the second premise is true, the Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth.
- c. But if the first premise is true, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins?
I ask, is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it is, then Christ either suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did die for the sin of 'unbelief', why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not die for their sin of 'unbelief', then He did not die for all their sins!
No comments:
Post a Comment